In the Nicomachaen Ethics, Aristotle claims that pleasure is a bi-product of virtue,

In the Nicomachaen Ethics, Aristotle claims that pleasure is a bi-product of virtue, and material wealth (money, success, love, beauty, charisma, popularity, etc) are tools that make the path to virtue easier.

Do you agree with this evaluation? Do you think there is a different way of looking at pleasure and material wealth in correspondence to virtue? Is it possible that pleasure and material wealth are unrelated to virtue?

Remember, that you are allowed (and encouraged) to disagree with established philosophers. Be honest. Tell me what you think.

Make sure that you post your answer, and also respond to a classmate’s post. Use proper grammar and spelling.


your should be answer at lest 4 sentences


a classmate’s post

  • I concur that delight is a bi-result of excellence since I have discovered that when I am a decent individual, I general feel superior to anything when I do things that won’t not be the most upright. Throughout the years I have changed into winding up more mindful at the things I do, and additionally the way I treat individuals. Since I feel that I am more taught, mindful, and aware, I am more satisfied with my identity. I am a more upright individual and I do feel that my life is more pleasurable as a result of it. I do trust that material riches influences the way to ideals to simpler for a few people since cash and their variant of progress is all they need out of life. Be that as it may, there are other individuals who see no an incentive to material riches so it may not lead them to any satisfaction at all.

the respons should be at lest 4 sentenses

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